Sunday, September 10, 2017

Update Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 100-105 ICND1 questions answers pdf

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Share some CCENT 100-105 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.) 
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. 
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. 
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0 
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. 
E. The network is not subnetted. 
Answer: B, D 


What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? 
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. 
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. 
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. 
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. 
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. 
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. 
Answer: D 


Refer to the exhibit. 



If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated? 
A. broadcast domains 
B. repeater domains 
C. Ethernet collisions 
D. signal amplification 
E. Ethernet broadcasts 
Answer: C 


Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network? 
A. application 
B. session 
C. transport 
D. network 
E. data link 
F. physical 
Answer: D 


Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments? 
A. Physical 
B. Data-link 
C. Transport 
D. Network 
Answer: C

On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor? 
A. RTP 
B. TCP 
C. CDP 
D. UDP 
Answer: C 


DRAG DROP 



Answer: 



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Friday, September 8, 2017

Valid Cisco certification 200-125 real exam questions

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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.) 
A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs. 
B. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security. 
C. They are best suited to smaller wireless networks. 
D. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS. 
E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level. 
Answer: AE

Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. 
Which statement about the configuration is true? 
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate. 
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain. 
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate. 
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch. 
Answer: B

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router? 
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 4 
D. 8 
Answer: C

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation? 
A. application 
B. presentation 
C. session 
D. transport 
E. internet 
F. data link 
Answer: A

Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation? 
A. router#show platform 
B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0 
C. router#show ip interface s0/2/0 
D. router#show ip interface brief 
Answer: B

What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.) 
A. Recursive routes 
B. Directly connected routes 
C. Fully specified routes 
D. Advertised routes 
E. Virtual links 
F. Redistributed routes 
Answer: ABC

When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU? 
A. It continues operating normally. 
B. It goes into a down/down state. 
C. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN. 
D. It goes into an errdisable state. 
Answer: D

If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over? 
A. a switch with priority 20480 
B. a switch with priority 8192 
C. a switch with priority 4096 
D. a switch with priority 12288 
Answer: A

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Thursday, September 7, 2017

New Update Cisco Certification 210-260 IINS actual questions

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Share some CCNA Security 210-260 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement about a PVLAN isolated port configured on a switch is true? 
A. The isolated port can communicate only with the promiscuous port. 
B. The isolated port can communicate with other isolated ports and the promiscuous port. 
C. The isolated port can communicate only with community ports. 
D. The isolated port can communicate only with other isolated ports. 
Answer: A

How does a zone-based firewall implementation handle traffic between interfaces in the same zone? 
A. Traffic between two interfaces in the same zone is allowed by default. 
B. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked unless you configure the same-security permit command. 
C. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is always blocked. 
D. Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked unless you apply a service policy to the zone pair. 
Answer: A

What is the only permitted operation for processing multicast traffic on zone-based firewalls? 
A. Only control plane policing can protect the control plane against multicast traffic. 
B. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the self-zone. 
C. Stateful inspection for multicast traffic is supported only between the self-zone and the internal zone. 
D. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the internal zone. 
Answer: A

Which two statements about Telnet access to the ASA are true? (Choose two). 
A. You may VPN to the lowest security interface to telnet to an inside interface. 
B. You must configure an AAA server to enable Telnet. 
C. You can access all interfaces on an ASA using Telnet. 
D. You must use the command virtual telnet to enable Telnet. 
E. Best practice is to disable Telnet and use SSH. 
Answer: A,E

What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project? 
A. Education about common Web site vulnerabilities. 
B. A Web site security framework. 
C. A security discussion forum for Web site developers. 
D. Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures. 
Answer: A

When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading? 
A. Deny the connection inline. 
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset. 
C. Deploy an antimalware system. 
D. Enable bypass mode. 
Answer: A

What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption? 
A. It provides hardware authentication. 
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis 
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies. 
D. It can protect against single points of failure. 
Answer: A

Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.) 
A. Infrastructure as a Service 
B. Platform as a Service 
C. Security as a Service 
D. Compute as a Service 
E. Tenancy as a Service 
Answer: A, B


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Wednesday, September 6, 2017

Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure 300-165 DCII exam sample questions Update

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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.) 
A. M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC. 
B. M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity. 
C. F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity. 
D. M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set. 
E. The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC. 
Answer: A, D 

Which three items must be configured in the port profile client in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.) 
A. port profile 
B. DVS 
C. data center 
D. folder 
E. vCenter IP address 
F. VM port group 
Answer: B, C, D 

Which Cisco Nexus feature is best managed with DCNM-SAN? 
A. VSS 
B. domain parameters 
C. virtual switches 
D. AAA 
Answer: B 

Which two security features are only supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.) 
A. IP source guard 
B. traffic storm control 
C. CoPP 
D. DHCP snooping 
E. Dynamic ARP Inspection 
F. NAC 
Answer: B, F 

Which protocol is the foundation for unified fabric as implemented in Cisco NX-OS? 
A. Fibre Channel 
B. Data Center Bridging 
C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet 
D. N proxy virtualization 
E. N Port identifier virtualization 
Answer: C 


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Avaya Certification 7220X study guides pdf Passtcert

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Share some ACSS 7220X exam questions and answers below.
What are the two types of certificates the Avaya server uses? 
A. Root or a Certificate Authority (CA) certificate and Server Identity certificates 
B. Root or a Certificate Authority (CA) and SIP default certificates 
C. Site Root certificates and Security certificates 
D. Backup server and default certificates 
Answer: A

Refer to the Exhibit. 



Which two statements about a call from AST 1011111 to Remote Worker AST 1011112 are true? (Choose two.) 
A. Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) periodically sends SIP Options to 1011112 looking for a 200 ok response to check it is reachable. 
B. SIP Signaling traverses the Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) and the Media must bypass the SBCE. 
C. As far as Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM) is concerned, all Remote Worker phones are registering from an IP address equal to the Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) Remote Worker Private IP address. 
D. Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) needs to be built as a trusted SIP Entity and Entity link for remote workers. 
E. The configuration of a Remote Worker AST is the same as an Office Worker AST in the Avaya Aura® System Manager (SMGR) user profiles. 
Answer: C,E

Which three statements are true regarding Avaya Aura? 7.x? (Choose three.) 
A. Avaya Aura? Communication Manager (CM) performs Collaboration Services. 
B. The database in Avaya Aura? Media Server (AAMS) is periodically synchronized with System Manager (SMGR) 
C. Avaya Aura? Session Manager (SM) performs SIP Session Management and Bandwidth Management. 
D. System Manager (SMRG) frequently sends heartbeats to SIP Entities. 
E. Presence Services in Avaya Aura? 7 is hosted as an Avaya Breeze? snap-in. 
Answer: C,D,E

Refer to the Exhibits. 






The SIP call flow made from an Avaya Communicator Remote Worker is on the left, and the call flow made from a 96X1 telephone Remote Worker is on the right. 
When comparing the two call flows, which statement is true? 
A. There is no difference between the two. 
B. Avaya Aura® Communication Manager does full call model processing for the SIP-to-SIP call flow and does half-call model processing for the SIP-to-Communicator call flow. 
C. The Communicator does not register to Avaya Aura® Session Manager. 
D. The Communicator registers to Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE). 
Answer: A

Which two statements regarding the core architecture in the Avaya Aura® 7 solution are true? (Choose two.) 
A. SIP trunks can only be configured on Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM). 
B. SIP user Agents register with Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM). 
C. SIP User Agents can register to Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) or Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM). 
D. Avaya Aura® Media Server (AAMS) cannot connect to Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) without routing via Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM). 
E. Avaya Aura® Media Server (AAMS) connects directly to Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) using SIP. 
Answer: B,E

Which three statements are true regarding Avaya Aura® 7.x? (Choose three.) 
A. Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) performs Collaboration Services. 
B. The database in Avaya Aura® Media Server (AAMS) is periodically synchronized with System Manager (SMGR) 
C. Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM) performs SIP Session Management and Bandwidth Management. 
D. System Manager (SMRG) frequently sends heartbeats to SIP Entities. 
E. Presence Services in Avaya Aura® 7 is hosted as an Avaya Breeze® snap-in. 
Answer: C,D,E

A customer called Avaya Support after their telecom administrator was unable to add 50 new telephones for new hires. Avaya support determined that the number of telephones exceeded the capacity the system could support. Which pre-implementation step was omitted? 
A. Access support.avaya.com to verify customer systems compatibility. 
B. Test all third-party equipment and software. 
C. Verify version installed is compatible with existing versions. 
D. Provide accurate licensing specification. 
Answer: D


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Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 certification guides Passtcert

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used? 
A. Bulk Administration Tool 
B. Product Upgrade Tool 
C. Command Lookup Tool 
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page 
E. Cisco Upload Tool 
Answer: A

Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.) 
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server 
B. Cisco Unity Connection 
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager 
D. Active Directory 
E. Cisco Unified Border Element 
F. Cisco Expressway 
Answer: A,C

A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user's phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page? 
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box 
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box 
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box 
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box 
Answer: C

An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers? 
A. partition 
B. route group 
C. route list 
D. calling search space 
Answer: D

An end user is running Cisco Jabber on the desktop. Which two icons must be selected to make a video call? (Choose two.) 
A. Contacts icon 
B. phone icon 
C. person icon 
D. message icon 
E. web video conferencing icon 
Answer: A,B

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager system report shows high and low call volume patterns? 
A. CAR report 
B. QoS by Gateway 
C. QoS by call types 
D. Traffic summary 
E. Traffic summary by extension 
Answer: D

An SCCP IP phone places a call to a SIP phone that is registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. During the active call, call waiting indicates a second call is incoming to the handset, but the user decides to ignore it. In this scenario, what is the combined total number of signaling conversations and media flows that used the SCCP phone as an endpoint? 
A. 2 
B. 3 
C. 4 
D. 5 
E. 6 
Answer: B

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