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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam questions and answers below. Which option describes how to configure SNMP settings on a CTS/TX endpoint? A. can be configured only via codec CLI B. can be configured only via codec GUI C. can be configured only in a device profile in Cisco Unified Communications Manager D. can be configured either via codec GUI or codec CLI E. can be configured in codec GUI, codec CLI, or device profile in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Answer: C
An executive in XYZ Corporation wants to purchase a desktop video endpoint that can be used for conferencing, as well as a monitor when not in a conference. Which option do you recommend? A. C20 B. EX90 C. C90 D. SX80 E. MX300 2nd generation F. Cisco TelePresence Profile Series endpoint Answer: B
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured? A. Smart Scheduler B. Low-touch Provisioning C. FindMe D. CMR Provisioning Answer: C
Which protocol does the Cisco TelePresence Content Server use for call signaling? A. MGCP B. Cisco Proprietary C. SCCP D. H.323 Answer: D
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Jabber B. Cisco IP Video Phone E20 C. Cisco TelePresence EX Series D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence E. Cisco TelePresence System 500 Answer: C, E
Which function does FECC provide? A. the ability to transfer calls between the SIP and H.323 protocols B. the ability to pan, tilt, and zoom the camera at the far end C. the ability to switch between content channels D. the ability to send DTMF tones Answer: B
Which benefits does the Capture-Transform-Share solution provide? A. voice conferencing services B. WAN optimization services C. security and firewall services D. video conferencing services E. DNS, DHCP, and AD services F. video on demand and video streaming services Answer: F
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When using the Cisco UCS Manager GUI to troubleshoot a suspected bad memory, which logs contain data that are related to the faulty DIMM? A. the System Event log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab B. the Events log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab C. the System Event log that is located under the Server tab in the Navigation panel and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab D. the System Event log that is located under the Equipment tab and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab Answer: D
Which four tech support files can you create with the Cisco UCS Manager that you can submit to Cisco TAC for support? (Choose four.) A. UCSM B. disk LUNs C. fabric extender D. memory E. rack server F. chassis G. server cache Answer: A, C, E, F
During a password recovery of a Cisco UCS system in a cluster configuration, what happens to blade traffic? A. There is no interruption to traffic, as the fabrics go down one at a time. B. Traffic stops flowing until the process is complete. C. There is no interruption to traffic because both fabrics stay up the whole time. D. Traffic will continue to flow, but at a limited rate until the process is complete. Answer: B
Topic 1, Questions Set 1
A customer is trying to boot an operating system that is installed on the eUSB on a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server; however, the boot fails. What is the cause of this failure? A. The local disk must be the first device in the boot order. B. eUSB is not a supported boot device. C. eUSB support is available only on the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server. D. eUSB is not the first device in the boot order for the server. Answer: D
While attempting to boot a Cisco UCS server from SAN, you are unable to see the LUN. Which of these are causing the problem? (Choose three.) A. VHBA template B. RAID policy C. zoning D. LUN ID E. vACLs F. disjoint fabrics Answer: A, C, D
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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below. An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active? A. LDAP System Configuration B. LDAP Directory C. End User Configuration D. LDAP Authentication E. Route Plan Report Answer: C
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Unified Presence Server B. Cisco Unity Connection C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager D. Active Directory E. Cisco Unified Border Element F. Cisco Expressway Answer: A,C
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed? A. Gateway utilization B. Gateway summary C. Gateway detail D. Gateway and line group utilization Answer: A
An engineer wants to ensure that Cisco Jabber clients can communicate with instant messaging clients who are not registered to the same Jabber cluster. Which technology meets this requirement? A. intercluster trunk B. federation C. SIP trunk D. PRI Answer: B
Which component is needed to facilitate the connection between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Presence Server? A. SIP trunk B. H.323 gateway C. Gatekeeper D. MGCP gateway E. Cisco Unified Border Element Answer: A
An administrator wants to verify that a new PRI is properly connected to the PSTN status. Which Layer 2 status should be seen? A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED B. TEI_ASSIGNED C. LINK_UP D. CONTROLLER_UP Answer: A
Which four fields must an administrator complete to create a new user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.) A. Alias B. User type C. Extension D. Corporate email address E. First name F. Last name G. Employee ID H. Template Answer: A,B,C,H
An SCCP IP phone places a call to a SIP phone that is registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. During the active call, call waiting indicates a second call is incoming to the handset, but the user decides to ignore it. In this scenario, what is the combined total number of signaling conversations and media flows that used the SCCP phone as an endpoint? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 Answer: B
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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below. What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as theAS number. D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. Answer: D
Ticket 5 R1ACL
TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT: The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). show run by yourself to obtain the following information: Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor. Configuration on R1 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 description link to ISP ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip access-group edge_security in ip nat outside ip virtual-reassembly ntp brasdcast client net broadcast key 1 no cdp enable !! ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! ip access-list edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security deny ip 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any ip access-list edge_security permit ip host 209.65.200.241 any
On which device is the fault condition located? A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. DSW1 F. DSW2 G. ASW1 Answer: A
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command Answer: C
The fault condition is related to which technology? A. NTP B. IPv4 OSPF Routing C. IPv6 OSPF Routing D. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability E. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: D
What is the solution to the fault condition? A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel mode ipv6 command. B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 address 2026::34:1/122 command. C. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ip address unnumbered Serial0/0/0.34 command. D. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel source Serial0/0/0.34 command and enter the tunnel source 2026::34:1/122 command. Answer: A
R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) (Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes) A. They are not neighbors B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2 C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-) D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA E. R2 should be configured as stub Answer: BC
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NTP C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: A
What is the solution to the fault condition? A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. B. Under the interface Loopback6 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. C. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the redistribute rip RIP_ZONE include-connected command. Answer: D
What is the MTU¡¯s size in a GRE tunnel? A. 1630 B. 1476 C. 1500 D. 1900 Answer: B
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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.) A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown Answer: A,E
During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed? A. the PPP Session phase B. Phase 2 C. the Active Discovery phase D. the Authentication phase E. Phase 1 Answer: A
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses (Choose two) ? A. DNS B. DHCPv6 C. DHCP D. autoconfiguration Answer: BD
Which layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuis and has built-in security mechanisms? A. Frame Relay B. HDLC C. x.25 D. PPP Answer: D
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.) A. They use ICMPv6 type 134. B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits. C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits. D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address. E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node. Answer: AB
What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.) A. Recursive routes B. Directly connected routes C. Fully specified routes D. Advertised routes E. Virtual links F. Redistributed routes Answer: ABC
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An administrator is working with an application group to resolve a performance problem within the environment. They are experiencing slow read speeds and are trying to determine what could be done to improve performance. What would you add to the system to improve performance? A. NVRAM B. FlashCache C. RAM D. processors Answer: B
A customer created a volume with the wrong language code. What should a customer do to correct this problem? A. Delete the volume and create a volume with the correct language code. B. Take the volume offline and change the language code. C. Change the language code on the volume. D. Change the language code on the parent storage virtual machine. Answer: A
A customer creates four broadcast domains with the following ports included for node cl-01: bcast1 ¨C e0c bcast2 ¨C e0d bcast3 ¨C e0e bcast4 ¨C e0f A customer creates a LIF and specifies a home port of cl-01:e0f. After LIF creation, the administrator modifies the home port to use cl-01:e0c. Which broadcast domain is the LIF using now? A. bcast4 B. bcast2 C. bcast1 D. bcast3 Answer: C
Which command would you use to disable an account in clustered Data ONTAP? A. security login lock B. security login policy C. security login domain-tunnel D. security login modify Answer: A
Which data protocol is available to use on an SVM? A. FTP B. CIFS C. HTTP D. TFTP Answer: B
Which port is used for untagged VLAN traffic? A. a0a-0 B. a0a C. e0a-999 D. 0a Answer: B
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